Delete comment from: Edward Feser

Luke said...

@Scott:

> What is this "model" of Timocrates's of which you speak?

It is the unified idea he is defending, about what 'mind' is.

> And again, do you think James 1:8 is literally referring to a man with two minds? If not, what is your disagreement with Timocrates's "model"?

I don't know precisely how the "two minds" works; what I can say is that I don't see how Timocrates' model of the mind helps me better understand scripture or reality.

Mar 2, 2015, 2:49:41 PM

Posted to Descartes’ “indivisibility” argument