Delete comment from: Edward Feser

Scott said...

@Luke:

What is this "model" of Timocrates's of which you speak? And again, do you think James 1:8 is literally referring to a man with two minds? If not, what is your disagreement with Timocrates's "model"?

Mar 2, 2015, 2:44:53 PM

Posted to Descartes’ “indivisibility” argument