LALR, LR(1) and SLR

Question

Since LR (1) grammars are broader than LALR or SLR grammars, I have doubts regarding the proof of LR grammars. If a grammar is SLR or LALR, then does that mean that the grammar is also LR (1)?

In fact, since the method that uses lookaheads is more complex to carry out, I can therefore use the SLR method (without lookahead) or the LALR method to prove that a grammar is LR (1).

Ira Baxter · Accepted Answer · 2022-07-08 19:47:41Z

2

If a grammar is SLR(k) or LALR(k) then it also LR(k). If a conflict is found while constructing the LR parser, that same conflict will be present in an LALR or SLR parser for the same grammar.

edited Jul 8, 2022 at 19:47

Ira Baxter

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answered Jul 8, 2022 at 15:08

rici

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