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Given a model $M$ of some set theory, and two elementary submodels $N$, $Q$ of $M$, is there an elementary embedding between $N$ and $Q$?

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    $\begingroup$ Since every two elementarily equivalent models $N,Q$ elementarily embed in a common model $M$, you are in effect asking whether any two elementarily equivalent models of your theory are comparable wrt elementary embedding. This can only hold for very tame theories (not set theory). $\endgroup$ Commented 18 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ @EmilJeřábek I would encourage you to post an answer to that effect, since Gabe's answer uses large cardinals, but these are not required. $\endgroup$ Commented 11 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins There is still a somewhat interesting question of whether the question for transitive models requires large cardinals $\endgroup$ Commented 10 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins There are actual model theorists around who would be better equipped to do it than me. $\endgroup$ Commented 4 hours ago

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No, consider normal measures $U$ and $W$ on the first and second measurables of some countable transitive model $P$. Our model is $M=P_{U\times W}$, the ultrapower of $P$ by the product measure. We have factor embeddings $k_U : P_U \to P_{U\times W}$ and similarly $k_W$. But there is no elementary embedding between $P_U$ and $P_W$; none from $P_U$ to $P_W$ since this would imply the first measurable of $P_U$ is at most that of $P_W$; none the other way by considering the second measurable.

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  • $\begingroup$ While your argument is probably the conceptually simplest, it might be worth noting that counterexamples with transitive $M$ exist in any model of ZFC. In fact $M=H_\theta$ always works for any $\theta\geq\omega_2$. $\endgroup$ Commented 8 hours ago

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