Say that a forcing notion $\mathbb{P}$ is slow iff there is some $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ (in $V$) such that for every $\mathbb{P}$-name for a real, $\nu$, we have $\Vdash_\mathbb{P}\exists r\in V(\nu\oplus \check{r}\not\ge_Tf(r))$. For example:
No forcing which collapses the continuum to be countable is slow.
Cohen forcing is slow: the Cohen real itself $g$ never has $g\oplus r\ge_Tr'$, and every real added by Cohen forcing is Turing-equivalent to a Cohen real $\oplus$ a ground-model real.
I have a tentative proof that Hechler forcing is also slow. This is actually a bit tricky: certainly the Hechler real $h$ itself has limited computational power (namely $h\oplus r\not\ge_T\mathcal{O}^r$), but one still has to handle all the other reals added by Hechler forcing, and it's not quite as nice (unless I'm missing something) as Cohen.
On the other hand, there are non-slow forcings which are as forcing-theoretically nice as possible, i.e. c.c.c. - see Andeas Lietz' answer to my recent question.
I'm interested in which forcings are slow. This is way too broad a question, so here's a concrete instance: is slowness preserved by finite products? That is:
If $\mathbb{P}_1,\mathbb{P}_2$ are slow, must $\mathbb{P}_1\times\mathbb{P}_2$ be slow?
A natural guess is if $f_1$ and $f_2$ are not captured in the appropriate sense by $\mathbb{P}_1$ and $\mathbb{P}_2$ respectively, then something like $x\mapsto 2^{f_1(x)}3^{f_2(x)}$ would not be captured by $\mathbb{P}_1\times\mathbb{P}_2$. However, I don't actually see why this should be true. Certainly the square of a "tame" forcing need not be "tame" in general.