Thanks for your help. I'm reading the paper Iwasawa main conjecture for the Carlitz cyclotomic extension and applications (https://arxiv.org/pdf/1412.5957). I find three questions about the motivation to study $\mathbb{Z}_p^{\mathbb{N}}$-extension of global function fields.
Let $A=\mathbb{F}_q[T]$ and $F=\mathbb{F}_q(T)$. Consider the $\mathfrak{p}$-cyclotomic field tower constucted by adding $\mathfrak{p}$-torsion points of Carlitz modules into $F$. On the Page 5, the authors want to construct a $\mathbb{Z}_p^{\mathbb{N}}$ extension of $F$ under the $\mathfrak{p}$-cyclotomic extension of $F$. They define $\mathfrak{p}$-cyclotomic character $\kappa$ by the formal Drinfeld module.
Q1: Why do we need the formal Drinfeld module to replace Carlitz module here to define the $\mathfrak{p}$-cyclotomic character $\kappa$?
Q2: On the page 5, paragraph 1, the authors use the same symbol $\Phi$ for the formal Drinfeld module as the Carlitz module. So the symbol makes the text a little chaos for me to understand. “Then for any $\sigma \in G_\infty$ and any $\varepsilon \in \Phi[\mathfrak{p}^\infty]$, we have $\sigma(\varepsilon)=\Phi_{\kappa(\sigma)}(\varepsilon)$." I guess the meaning might be for any $\varepsilon$ in $\mathfrak{p}^\infty$-torsion part of Carlitz module, the group action on $\varepsilon$ is the same with replacing the variable $\tau$ by $\varepsilon$ for the element corresponding to $\kappa(\sigma)$ in the formal Drinfeld module. However, it seems define $\kappa$ in a loop?
Q3: How could we get $U_1 \cong \mathbb{Z}_p^{\mathbb{N}}$? $U_1$ is the group of $1$-units of $A_\mathfrak{p}$. I attempt to explain it. Since $A_{\mathfrak{p}} \cong \mathbb{F}_{\mathfrak{p}}[[\pi_p]]$, where $A_{\mathfrak{p}}$ the is completion of $A$ at $\mathfrak{p}$, $\mathbb{F}_{\mathfrak{p}}$ is the residue field of $A_{\mathfrak{p}}$ and $\pi_{\mathfrak{p}}$ is the irreducible generator of $\mathfrak{p}$ in $A$, we have $U_1 \cong 1+ \pi_p\mathbb{F}_{\mathfrak{p}}[[\pi_p]]$. By log (I think there exists a well-defined logarithm for $\pi_{\mathfrak{p}}$?) it is isomorpic to $\mathbb{F}_{\mathfrak{p}}[[\pi_\mathfrak{p}]]$, which has a countable basis as free $\mathbb{F}_\mathfrak{p}$-module. But how could we deduce that it is a free $\mathbb{Z}_p$-module?